Answer and solution
Correct answer: 2100
Solution
1. Riya sells the product for Rs. 4,800 at a loss of 20%.
2. So, Rs. 4,800 is 80% of her cost price.
3. Cost price = 4800 × 100/80 = Rs. 6,000.
4. If Riya had sold the product at the price paid by Kavya, she would have made a profit of 15%.
5. Therefore, Kavya's purchase price was:
6. 6000 × 115/100 = Rs. 6,900.
7. Meera bought the product for Rs. 4,800 and sold it for Rs. 6,900.
8. Meera's profit = 6900 − 4800 = Rs. 2,100.
9. Answer: Rs. 2,100 (TITA).
Why this method works:
The loss and hypothetical profit are both measured against Riya’s original cost price. Meera’s profit, however, must be measured as her own selling price minus her purchase price of ₹4,800. Mixing these two cost bases gives the wrong result.
Independent check and common trap:
₹4,800 is 80% and ₹6,900 is 115% of the same ₹6,000 base. Their difference is 35% of ₹6,000=₹2,100. This directly verifies Meera’s rupee profit; 35% is not Meera’s own profit percentage.
G Strategy shortcut
Spot: Arithmetic – Profit and Loss.Apply: Riya CP=4800/0.8=6000. Kavya price=1.15×6000=6900. Meera profit=6900−4800=2100.
Check: ₹4,800 is 80% and ₹6,900 is 115% of the same ₹6,000 base. Their difference is 35% of ₹6,000=₹2,100. This directly verifies Meera’s rupee profit; 35% is not Meera’s own profit percentage.
G Strategy: Spot: Arithmetic – Profit and Loss. Apply: Riya CP=4800/0.8=6000. Kavya price=1.15×6000=6900. Meera profit=6900−4800=2100. Check: ₹4,800 is 80% and ₹6,900 is 115% of the same ₹6,000 base. Their difference is 35% of ₹6,000=₹2,100. This directly verifies Meera’s rupee profit; 35% is not Meera’s own profit percentage.